Christ and sin
In your remarks, I believe I am correct in saying, you said that both
internally and externally Christ was without sin.
On that premise, can you please explain to me the Apostle Paul’s comment
in 2 Corinthians 5:21 where Paul says (the context will show that God
is speaking of Christ) “God hath made Christ to be sin for us who knew
no sin that we might be made the righteousness of God in him”. How is
that explained if you say that either internally or externally Christ
did not possess sin.
I should have thought that if he was made sin it was perfectly clear
that he didn’t have sin before.
But then, at some stage, Christ must have had sin.
Yes, on the cross. When Christ bore our sins in his body on the tree.
Mr. Chairman, May I just say the correct translation of that is “that
made him to be a sin-offering” MacKnight, C.H. Dodd, Albright all translate
that to be a “sin offering” Christ wasn’t made sin.
Well, I don’t know I wish to make any comment on what the last questioner
has stated unless he wishes me to answer.